Quiz 🩺 Medicine
Pathology for Second-Year Med Students Quiz
Quiz generated from Pathology for Second-Year Med Students
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Question 1
What is the most frequent type of necrosis in the body?
- Coagulative necrosis
- Liquefactive necrosis
- Caseous necrosis
- Fibrinoid necrosis
Question 2
Which statement best describes a transudate?
- It is protein-rich fluid leaking from damaged vessels
- It is mostly fluid passing through normal vessel walls
- It is caused by infection
- It contains abundant cellular debris
Question 3
Fibrinoid necrosis is commonly associated with which conditions?
- Malignant hypertension and vasculitis
- Fat necrosis and pancreatitis
- Tuberculosis and sarcoidosis
- Myocardial infarction and stroke
Question 4
Which tumor marker is elevated in prostate carcinoma?
- PSA
- CEA
- AFP
- CA-125
Question 5
Which tumor markers are elevated in ovarian cancer?
- CA-125 and CA 19.9
- CEA and AFP
- PSA and HCG
- Thyroglobulin and calcitonin
Question 6
Bcl-2 promotes apoptosis by releasing cytochrome C from mitochondria.
- True
- False
Question 7
Dry gangrene involves liquefactive necrosis and appears mummy-like.
- True
- False
Question 8
The type of necrosis that appears soft, whitish-gray, and cottage cheese-like is ____.
Fill in the blank
Question 9
How do CD8+ T cells induce apoptosis in target cells?
- They release perforins and granzymes
- They secrete antibodies
- They activate Bcl-2
- They bind FAS ligand
Question 10
What is the macroscopic appearance of caseous necrosis?
- Soft, whitish-gray, and cottage cheese-like
- Black and mummified
- Liquefied and cystic
- Bright red and hemorrhagic
Question 11
MPO deficiency typically causes severe, recurrent bacterial infections in most patients.
- True
- False
Question 12
Carcinomas most often metastasize through the ____ system.
Fill in the blank
Question 13
What is the most common route of metastasis for sarcomas?
- Hematogenous spread
- Lymphatic spread
- Direct implantation
- Spread across body cavities
Question 14
Rickets is caused by a deficiency of ____ in children.
Fill in the blank
Question 15
A floppy newborn with poor feeding, jaundice, constipation, a hoarse cry, macroglossia, an umbilical hernia, and coarse facial features most likely has which condition?
- Congenital hypothyroidism
- Phenylketonuria
- Down syndrome
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Question 16
Which of the following is NOT a known renal effect of infective endocarditis?
- Renal infarction
- Glomerulonephritis
- Renal abscess
- Renal cell carcinoma
Question 17
Which cerebral artery is most commonly affected by emboli from infective endocarditis?
- Middle cerebral artery
- Anterior cerebral artery
- Posterior cerebral artery
- Basilar artery
Question 18
In infective endocarditis, cerebral emboli occur in about one-third of cases.
- True
- False
Question 19
What is the most common splenic complication of infective endocarditis?
- Infarction
- Abscess
- Hyperplasia
- Calcification
Question 20
Infective endocarditis can cause pulmonary infarction, especially on the right side.
- True
- False
Question 21
Which skin finding of infective endocarditis is described as hemorrhagic spots on the palms and soles?
- Janeway lesions
- Osler nodes
- Petechiae
- Clubbing
Question 22
The tender nodules on the fingertips or toes associated with infective endocarditis are called ____ nodes.
Fill in the blank
Question 23
What is a Roth spot?
- Retinal edema/hemorrhage in the nerve fiber layer
- A splenic infarction
- A tender nodule on the finger
- A petechia on the conjunctiva
Question 24
Which of the following is a characteristic eye finding of infective endocarditis?
- Roth spots
- Cataracts
- Glaucoma
- Macular degeneration
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