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Question 1
Which panel of markers is characteristic of melanoma?
- S-100, HMB-45, Mart-1, and melan-A
- CK5/6, p63, and p40
- CD117, PLAP, and OCT-4
- CD45 and keratin
Question 2
Which stain profile is expected in renal cell carcinoma?
- Positive for PAX8, CD10, RCC, and EMA; negative for CK7, CK20, and TTF-1
- Positive for CK7, CK20, and TTF-1; negative for PAX8 and CD10
- Positive for CK5/6, p63, and p40
- Positive for CD45 and CD163
Question 3
The characteristic genetic alteration in papillary thyroid carcinoma is a mutation in which gene?
Fill in the blank
Question 4
Which marker combination supports a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma?
- CK5/6, p63, and p40
- S-100, HMB-45, and melan-A
- CD117, PLAP, and D2-40
- CEA, EMA, and cytokeratin
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT one of the four conditions that feature oncocytes?
- Pleomorphic adenoma
- Warthin tumor
- Hashimoto thyroiditis
- Salivary gland retention cyst
Question 6
What are the two histologic variants of nonspecific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)?
- Cellular and fibrotic
- Usual and desquamative
- Organizing and fibrinous
- Lymphoid and eosinophilic
Question 7
In pulmonary sarcoidosis, the granulomas are distributed along areas of lymphatic drainage.
- True
- False
Question 8
What are asteroid bodies, as seen in sarcoidosis?
- Collections of oxidized lipid membranes
- Concentrically laminated calcifications
- Nodules of fibroblasts within alveolar spaces
- Hyaline membranes lining alveolar walls
Question 9
EBUS-TBNA is highly sensitive for the diagnosis of which disease?
- Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
- Sarcoidosis
- Usual interstitial pneumonia
- Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Question 10
Which pair of diseases characteristically involves the upper lobe of the lung?
- Hypersensitivity pneumonitis and cystic fibrosis
- Pulmonary hemorrhage and pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
- Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia and pulmonary hemorrhage
- Langerhans cell histiocytosis and chronic eosinophilic pneumonia
Question 11
What is the correct order of the four histologic changes in diffuse alveolar damage?
- Edema, hyaline membranes, inflammation, fibroplasia
- Hyaline membranes, edema, fibroplasia, inflammation
- Inflammation, edema, hyaline membranes, fibroplasia
- Fibroplasia, inflammation, edema, hyaline membranes
Question 12
Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia of the lung measures less than what size?
Fill in the blank
Question 13
What size range defines adenocarcinoma in situ of the lung?
- Less than 0.5 cm
- Greater than 0.5 cm and less than 3.0 cm
- Greater than 3.0 cm and less than 5.0 cm
- Greater than 5.0 cm
Question 14
Which pattern of lung adenocarcinoma has the best prognosis?
- Lepidic
- Acinar
- Micropapillary
- All three have equivalent prognosis
Question 15
Which order correctly ranks lung adenocarcinoma patterns from best to worst prognosis?
- Lepidic, acinar, micropapillary
- Acinar, lepidic, micropapillary
- Micropapillary, acinar, lepidic
- Lepidic, micropapillary, acinar
Question 16
What is the best method for measuring the invasive component of a lung adenocarcinoma?
- Direct measurement on the slide
- Calculating the percentage of non-lepidic tumor relative to total gross tumor size
- Radiologic measurement of the solid component
- Clinical staging alone
Question 17
Which primary lung tumor can show staining consistent with either a lung primary or a pancreaticobiliary primary?
- Mucinous adenocarcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Typical carcinoid
- Atypical carcinoid
Question 18
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung typically metastasizes early.
- True
- False
Question 19
Which set of mitotic count cutoffs correctly distinguishes pulmonary neuroendocrine tumors?
- Typical carcinoid: 0–1; atypical carcinoid: 2–10; high-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma: more than 10
- Typical carcinoid: 2–10; atypical carcinoid: 0–1; high-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma: more than 10
- Typical carcinoid: 0–1; atypical carcinoid: more than 10; high-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma: 2–10
- Typical carcinoid: more than 10; atypical carcinoid: 2–10; high-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma: 0–1
Question 20
What are the three most commonly identified genetic alterations in non-small-cell, non-squamous lung cancer?
- KRAS, EGFR, and ALK
- BRAF, MET, and ROS1
- TP53, RB1, and PTEN
- EGFR, ALK, and RET
Question 21
Signet ring or hepatoid morphology in a lung cancer specimen should raise concern for which mutation?
- ALK
- EGFR
- KRAS
- BRAF
Question 22
What eosinophil count threshold is used for the histologic diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis?
- More than 20 eosinophils per high-power field
- More than 5 eosinophils per high-power field
- More than 50 eosinophils per high-power field
- More than 100 eosinophils per high-power field
Question 23
Eosinophilic microabscesses are a histologic feature of eosinophilic esophagitis.
- True
- False
Question 24
Which condition is NOT included in the differential diagnosis for esophageal eosinophilia?
- Acute pancreatitis
- Gastroesophageal reflux disease
- Crohn disease
- Connective tissue disease
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