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Question 1
Which condition is characterized by short stature and shortened 4th and 5th digits?
- Pseudohypoparathyroidism type 1A (Albright hereditary osteodystrophy)
- Marfan syndrome
- Achondroplasia
- Turner syndrome
Question 2
Before surgical removal of a pheochromocytoma, which medication sequence is recommended?
- Irreversible alpha-antagonist (e.g., phenoxybenzamine) first, then a beta-blocker
- Beta-blocker first, then an alpha-antagonist
- Alpha-agonist first, then a beta-blocker
- Calcium channel blocker first, then an alpha-blocker
Question 3
Orlistat reduces dietary fat absorption by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase.
- True
- False
Question 4
Which ECG pattern is characteristic of Brugada syndrome?
- Pseudo-right bundle branch block and ST elevations in V1-V3
- Diffuse ST elevations with PR depression
- Delta waves and a short PR interval
- ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF
Question 5
In asthma pathogenesis, TH2 cells secrete interleukin-____, which attracts eosinophils.
Fill in the blank
Question 6
Which enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine using SAM as a cofactor and stimulated by cortisol?
- Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
- Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
- Tyrosine hydroxylase
- Monoamine oxidase
Question 7
The mnemonic MEALS for kwashiorkor stands for Malnutrition, Edema, Anemia, fatty Liver, and Skin lesions.
- True
- False
Question 8
Which additional findings are associated with iron deficiency anemia?
- Pica and koilonychia
- Jaundice and hepatomegaly
- Glossitis and paresthesias
- Splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy
Question 9
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is caused by which virus?
Fill in the blank
Question 10
Which nerves carry parasympathetic fibers to the GI tract?
- Vagus and pelvic splanchnic nerves
- Vagus and greater splanchnic nerves
- Pelvic splanchnic and hypogastric nerves
- Celiac and superior mesenteric plexuses
Question 11
What converts trypsinogen to trypsin in the duodenum and jejunum?
- Enteropeptidase (enterokinase)
- Pepsin
- Carboxypeptidase
- Trypsin inhibitor
Question 12
According to the SAID PUCKER mnemonic, which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure?
- Ascending colon
- Transverse colon
- Jejunum
- Stomach
Question 13
DiGeorge syndrome is caused by developmental failure of which pharyngeal pouches?
- 1st and 2nd
- 2nd and 3rd
- 3rd and 4th
- 4th and 6th
Question 14
Which of the following is the most common primary immunodeficiency?
- Selective IgA deficiency
- Common variable immunodeficiency
- X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton agammaglobulinemia)
- Chronic granulomatous disease
Question 15
Which muscles produce external rotation of the hip?
- Iliopsoas, gluteus maximus, piriformis, and obturator muscles
- Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
- Adductor longus and adductor magnus
- Rectus femoris and sartorius
Question 16
Cowdry bodies are eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions found in cells infected with viruses of the herpesviridae family.
- True
- False
Question 17
Cowdry bodies are basophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in herpesviridae infections.
- True
- False
Question 18
Hepatitis C virus can be treated with which two classes of drugs?
- Protease inhibitors and polymerase inhibitors
- Reverse transcriptase inhibitors and integrase inhibitors
- Neuraminidase inhibitors and fusion inhibitors
- Capsid inhibitors and entry inhibitors
Question 19
Primary polydipsia is treated with ______.
Fill in the blank
Question 20
What is the mechanism of organophosphate poisoning?
- Irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase
- Reversible inhibition of cholinesterase
- Direct agonism at muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
- Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
Question 21
Which regimen is used to treat organophosphate poisoning?
- Atropine plus pralidoxime
- Atropine alone
- Pralidoxime alone
- Physostigmine plus naloxone
Question 22
How does pralidoxime help in organophosphate poisoning?
- It reactivates acetylcholinesterase by binding the organophosphate and detaching it from the enzyme
- It blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
- It reversibly inhibits cholinesterase
- It increases acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals
Question 23
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus develops anemia. What is the most likely underlying cause?
- Chronic kidney disease with erythropoietin deficiency
- Iron deficiency caused by insulin therapy
- Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- Acute blood loss from diabetic retinopathy
Question 24
Before starting epoetin or darbepoetin in a patient with anemia of chronic kidney disease, what should be evaluated?
- Iron status, because these agents rapidly deplete iron stores
- Serum calcium, because these agents cause hypercalcemia
- Thyroid function, because these agents suppress thyroid hormone
- International normalized ratio, because these agents are highly protein bound
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