Want to study this quiz?
Copy it to your free Gradiuz library and make it your own.
Question 1
In Down syndrome maternal serum screening, which pattern of inhibin A and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is expected?
- Increased inhibin A and decreased AFP
- Decreased inhibin A and increased AFP
- Increased inhibin A and increased AFP
- Decreased inhibin A and decreased AFP
Question 2
A patient has prolonged paralysis after succinylcholine. Which condition best explains this?
- Pseudocholinesterase deficiency
- Acetylcholinesterase deficiency at the neuromuscular junction
- CYP450 induction
- Myasthenia gravis
Question 3
Which statement about infertility in cystic fibrosis and primary ciliary dyskinesia is correct?
- Cystic fibrosis causes azoospermia from an absent vas deferens; primary ciliary dyskinesia causes immotile spermatozoa.
- Cystic fibrosis causes immotile spermatozoa; primary ciliary dyskinesia causes an absent vas deferens.
- Both conditions cause absolute sterility.
- Both conditions cause ovarian failure.
Question 4
Which drug is a CYP450 inhibitor?
- Cimetidine
- Rifampin
- Carbamazepine
- Phenytoin
Question 5
DHEAS is produced only by the adrenal gland, and a high DHEAS level in a woman with hirsutism suggests an adrenal source.
- True
- False
Question 6
Which factor is the most important regulator of cerebral blood flow?
- PaCO2
- PaO2
- Systemic pH
- Heart rate
Question 7
A patient develops spontaneous gas gangrene caused by Clostridium septicum. Which underlying condition should be evaluated for?
- Colon cancer
- Gastric ulcer
- Acute pancreatitis
- Urinary tract infection
Question 8
Why is hCG used to trigger ovulation after follicle maturation with gonadotropins?
- It binds LH receptors and has a long half-life, providing sustained LH-like stimulation.
- It directly matures follicles without gonadotropins.
- It suppresses FSH to prevent ovulation.
- It prevents ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
Question 9
Statistical power is equal to 1 minus ____.
Fill in the blank
Question 10
How does Crohn disease of the terminal ileum promote calcium oxalate kidney stones?
- Decreased fat absorption leaves more free oxalate to be absorbed.
- Increased calcium absorption leads to hypercalciuria.
- Decreased uric acid excretion causes uric acid stones.
- Increased bile acid absorption causes oxalate stones.
Question 11
After complete loss of vitamin B12 intake or absorption, deficiency typically develops after how long?
- 3 to 4 years
- 3 to 4 days
- 3 to 4 weeks
- 3 to 4 months
Question 12
How is neonatal tetanus prevented?
- Give Tdap to the mother at 27 to 36 weeks in every pregnancy and ensure hygienic delivery and cord care.
- Give Tdap only in the first trimester of the first pregnancy.
- Give the newborn Tdap before delivery.
- Avoid vaccination during pregnancy and rely on cord care alone.
Question 13
A patient has an appendiceal abscess. What is the preferred management?
- Image-guided percutaneous drainage with conservative treatment
- Emergency appendectomy
- Observation alone without antibiotics
- Right hemicolectomy
Question 14
A patient who fell from a height has left shoulder pain and left upper quadrant tenderness with voluntary guarding, and is hemodynamically stable. What is the next step in management?
- Abdominal CT
- Shoulder radiography
- Immediate exploratory laparotomy
- Discharge with outpatient follow-up
Question 15
A 60-year-old man has 6 months of increasing urinary frequency with a nontender, firm, symmetrically enlarged prostate and no nodules on rectal examination. What is the next step?
- Urinalysis
- Prostate-specific antigen testing
- Prostate ultrasonography
- Cystoscopy
Question 16
Which finding requires incision and drainage rather than antibiotics alone?
- A fluctuant mass
- Purulent discharge without a collection
- Erythema alone
- A nonfluctuant area of induration
Question 17
The two most effective measures for preventing central line infection are preparing the skin with chlorhexidine and alcohol and ______ of the catheter when it is no longer needed.
Fill in the blank
Question 18
A postmenopausal woman has endometrial cells on a routine Pap smear with no cytologic abnormality. What is the next step?
- Endometrial sampling
- Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
- No further evaluation needed
- Hysterectomy
Question 19
Premenopausal women with benign endometrial cells and no cytologic abnormality on a screening Pap smear require endometrial sampling.
- True
- False
Question 20
A breastfeeding mother has deep stabbing breast and nipple pain, and her infant has a white coating on the tongue that is easily scraped off. What is the appropriate management?
- Topical antifungal therapy for both mother and infant while continuing breastfeeding
- Topical antifungal therapy for the infant only
- Stop breastfeeding and start oral antibiotics for the mother
- Reassurance only, since the findings are normal
Question 21
HIV testing is routinely recommended for all patients who develop a candidal infection.
- True
- False
Question 22
Which screening tests are recommended for all sexually active adolescents and adults at increased risk for sexually transmitted infections?
- HIV testing plus NAAT for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- Syphilis serology plus herpes simplex virus PCR
- HIV testing alone
- NAAT for Chlamydia trachomatis alone
Question 23
Which mutation is associated with neuroblastoma?
- n-myc mutation
- c-myc mutation
- BCR-ABL fusion
- RAS mutation
Question 24
A 32-year-old sexually active woman has 2 weeks of postcoital pain and blood-tinged vaginal discharge. The cervix is tender to motion and bleeds when touched with a swab. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Chlamydia infection
- Cervical trauma
- Endometrial cancer
- Bacterial vaginosis
Made with Gradiuz
Turn any PDF into quizzes, flashcards and summaries - free.