Anatomic Pathology Board Study (AP-Part1) Quiz - Gradiuz

Anatomic Pathology Board Study (AP-Part1) Quiz

Quiz generated from Anatomic Pathology Board Study (AP-Part1)

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Question 1

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of Wilson disease?

  • Decreased serum ceruloplasmin
  • Increased serum ceruloplasmin
  • Decreased serum alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • Increased serum transferrin saturation
Question 2

What is the most common glomerulonephritis?

  • IgA nephropathy
  • Membranous nephropathy
  • Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis
  • Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Question 3

Which syndrome is strongly associated with renal cell carcinoma?

  • Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
  • Tuberous sclerosis
  • Gardner syndrome
  • Alport syndrome
Question 4

In extramammary Paget disease, which marker may be positive and help guide therapy?

  • HER2/neu
  • Estrogen receptor
  • Progesterone receptor
  • CD30
Question 5

Paget disease of the vulva usually indicates an underlying breast or vulvar cancer more serious than ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS).

  • True
  • False
Question 6

Which long-term malignancies are associated with celiac disease?

  • Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma and adenocarcinoma
  • Gastric carcinoid and hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Renal cell carcinoma and angiomyolipoma
  • Desmoid fibromatosis and osteomas
Question 7

Most carriers of an HFE mutation for hereditary hemochromatosis develop symptomatic iron overload.

  • True
  • False
Question 8

Which findings are part of Gardner syndrome?

  • Multiple osteomas, desmoid fibromatosis, epidermal or sebaceous cysts, and gastrointestinal adenomas
  • Multiple osteomas, renal angiomyolipomas, and pulmonary cysts
  • Diffuse gastrointestinal adenomas without extraintestinal lesions
  • Paget disease of the breast and ductal carcinoma in situ
Question 9

Budd-Chiari syndrome is caused by occlusion of the hepatic vein or the ___.

Fill in the blank

Question 10

Which vasculitis resembles granulomatosis with polyangiitis but lacks nasopharyngeal involvement and granulomas?

  • Microscopic polyangiitis
  • Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
  • Polyarteritis nodosa
  • Goodpasture syndrome
Question 11

Which clinical finding has the strongest association with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)?

  • Asthma
  • Palpable purpura
  • Hemoptysis
  • Nasopharyngeal involvement
Question 12

What immunofluorescence pattern is seen in Goodpasture syndrome?

  • Linear IgG along the glomerular and alveolar basement membranes
  • Granular IgA in the mesangium
  • Pauci-immune staining
  • Granular C3 along the basement membrane
Question 13

Which gene mutation accounts for approximately 85% of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)?

  • PKD1
  • PKD2
  • PKHD1
  • VHL
Question 14

Which set of findings is associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)?

  • Berry aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse, and benign hepatic cysts
  • Congenital hepatic fibrosis and Potter sequence
  • Angiomyolipomas and pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis
  • Wilms tumor and hemihypertrophy
Question 15

In autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, death is most often caused by metastatic renal cell carcinoma.

  • True
  • False
Question 16

In renal osteodystrophy, which mechanism leads to the high parathyroid hormone synthesis that causes subperiosteal bone thinning and osteitis fibrosa cystica?

  • Hypocalcemia from failed vitamin D hydroxylation and from phosphate binding calcium
  • Hypercalcemia from excessive vitamin D activation by the failing kidney
  • Hypophosphatemia from renal phosphate wasting
  • Primary parathyroid adenoma unrelated to renal function
Question 17

Which gene is mutated in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)?

  • PKHD1
  • PKD1
  • PKD2
  • TSC2
Question 18

Which finding is characteristic of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) at birth?

  • Bilateral renal cystic disease
  • Unilateral renal agenesis
  • Multiple renal cell carcinomas
  • Renal amyloidosis
Question 19

Small cell (oat cell) carcinoma of the lung typically arises in the _____ portion of the lung.

Fill in the blank

Question 20

Which statement best describes the differentiation and behavior of small cell (oat cell) carcinoma of the lung?

  • It is undifferentiated and very aggressive
  • It is well differentiated and indolent
  • It is moderately differentiated and curable by surgery
  • It is a benign neuroendocrine proliferation
Question 21

Surgical resection is the primary treatment for small cell (oat cell) carcinoma of the lung.

  • True
  • False
Question 22

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome occurring with small cell lung carcinoma is caused by antibodies directed against which target?

  • Presynaptic calcium channels
  • Postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
  • Voltage-gated sodium channels in skeletal muscle
  • Acetylcholinesterase at the motor end plate
Question 23

Which genetic alterations are common in small cell (oat cell) carcinoma of the lung?

  • p53 and RB1 mutations with MYC amplification
  • EGFR mutation and ALK rearrangement
  • BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations
  • APC and KRAS mutations
Question 24

Which complications of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) are seen beyond the neonatal period?

  • Hypertension, portal hypertension, and progressive renal insufficiency
  • Berry aneurysms and mitral valve prolapse
  • Renal cell carcinoma and polycythemia
  • Nephrolithiasis and hypercalcemia

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